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Tuesday, March 2, 2010

Strawson and Grice on 'analytic'

--- By J. L. Speranza

In this post, which I will try to elaborate on at a later stage, I would like to get a few quotes by Strawson on 'analytic', and see what Grice could have said about them.

Grice was onto the teaching of logic, as it were, in a very Oxford context, and I tend to think he was especially interested in this book by Strawson, Introduction to Logical Theory, which had come out in 1952, i.e. before Quine visited Oxford.

While Grice and Strawson would have been familiar with Quine's textbooks, they were still basically relying on Whitehead/Russell, Principia Mathematica, it would seem.

There were _other_ philosophers than Strawson who Grice would be interested in: Urmson was studying the development of logic in England for his book Philosophical Analysis that came out in 1956, and which discusses examples like

"She got off her knickers and went to bed"
"She went to bed and got off her knickers"

-- vis a vis the logical atomism of the Tractatus: they 'depict' the same picture of reality. Warnock, who had written on 'Metaphysics in Logic' was going to supply a history of logic in his English Philosophy since 1900. Plus, there was the local history of logic at Oxford: the work of John Cook Wilson, for example, pretty influential in Grice (his Statement and Inference -- posthumous heavy book on so many things).

So, 'analytic' was out in the air, and neither Strawson or Grice needed Quine's little refutation of what he found was a problem in non-Oxonian authors! So one may need to revise what Strawson may have said about 'analytic' or even 'logical' truth in his Intro, and see if we can elaborate a continuity of argumentation incorporating now Grice in their joint attack to Quine.

From
www.archive.org/stream/introductiontolo010626mbp/introductiontolo010626mbp_d
jvu.txt

The first occurrence of 'analytic' is on p. 21. where Strawson takes "analytic" as short for "logically necessary".

The next is on p. 36, where he speak so of 'analytic' as a statement that "makes special connexions with things in the world":

my three-year-old son is not an adult.

The next is on p. 38, where he says that 'if' combines most often with the metalogic 'analytic'. It's the meaning postulate:

"A three-year-old child is not an adult" (understood conditionally)

On p. 39 he uses that in connection with the horse shoe

He is a younger son ⊃ he is a brother.

(where the above is analytic).

On p. 40 he considers:

He is a bachelor --> NOT (he is married)

(analytic). But he feels he has to consider more important 'necessary truths'. "Otherwise my book on logic will be longer than any dictionary".

On p. 41 he says he'll restrict to second-order analytic truths.

On p. 46, considering logic of relations consider this below as analytic

xRy
yRz
-------
Ergo xRz

----

On p.58, he considers that the logician works best deriving one analytic formula from another analytic formula rather than at the metalogical level of deriving one rule from another.

On p. 60, he considers

"If x is not a male, x is not a father"
as "analytic"

On p. 71 he provides the truth table to prove what formulae are analytic:


She got off her knickers and got into bed.
___________________________________________

Therefore: she got into bed and got off her knickers

p & q
-------
q & p

It is analytic (a tautology, a theorem) that

if (p & q), (q & p)


In symbols

(p & q) --> (q & p)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 0 1 0 0 0

Tautology
Analytic


Not a lot -- here we may want to consider Strawson's earlier thoughts on 'necessary', too. That is


N E C E S S A R Y

P R O P O S I T I O N S

and

E N T A I L E M E N T - S T A T E M E N T S


which he wrote for _Mind_, 1948, four years before his book. When he was JUST learning from Grice (Grice was Strawson's tutor at St. John's where Strawson was John Locke Scholar).

In this early paper, Strawson quotes Koerner quoting CARNAP:

He is talking of

"deducibility"

and what we mean by that and that there seems to be a consensus:

with "except, perhaps, Carnap"

For which Strawson referst to Korner, pp. 151-152,

------ So in any case, these are serious issues that Strawson and Grice were peacefully studying in Oxford, using Aristotle, "Analytics" and Whitehead/Russell, discussing the occasional ref. to Carnap, and then possibly feeling bombarded when the textbook author Quine (whom they would have considered for things like "Mathematical Logic") thinks he can have the cheek to say that Carnap was being an empiricist and that as Such empiricism was silly because it rested on one big mistake, called "analytic".

Quine's agenda is obvious: he wanted to present "the New American" philosophy, etc. What his critics have noted, though, is that as far as the analytic/synthetic distinction go, the claim was pretty English and empiricist already and traceable back at least to Good Ol' Mill's System of Logic which was A REQUIREMENT of the Lit. Hum (Philosophy) programme that Grice had passed with flying colours. Etc.

7 comments:

  1. Could you elaborate on (i.e. defend) the usefulness of:

    "She got off her knickers and went to bed"
    "She went to bed and got off her knickers"

    as an example of anything other than that conversational moves are economic?

    In response to the question

    "Did she get her knickers off and go to bed?"

    1. "Yes"

    would mean

    "She got off her knickers and then she went to bed."

    In response to the question

    "What did she do at 10:00 pm?"

    2. "She got off her knickers and went to bed"

    would mean

    "She got off her knickers and then she went to bed."

    Neither 1 nor 2 stands for the logical (i.e., unordered) proposition

    3. "She got off her knickers and she went to bed."

    Sentences 1 and 2 are conversational moves; sentence 3 is not. They are different things. And 2 is no more interesting than 1 as a token of the ordered chain of events just because it approaches looking like a logical proposition that means something else entirely.

    I also wonder why zeugma is allowed in logical propositions. Omitting "she" from the second act is a conversational tactic, as "went to bed" is not a proposition. You have to add an "understood" subject. But if you can infer "she" went to bed, why not infer "she then" wnet to bed?

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  2. I'm with Kramer here and baulked at the example.

    It seems to not be about inferring cause and effect, but rather two separate actions presented in sequence.

    Counter-examples.

    "He ate an apple and died in the afternoon."

    This is the type of sentence that produces an inference that may be wholly in error.

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  3. I'll elaborate, i.e. try to defend. Just some initial commentary to both Kramer and Kennedy. Since I wrote my PhD on 'and' I should know! When I tried to specify the 'and' indeed I stuck with what Kramer above has as "and then". I did NOT want to go onto Kennedy's more complex implicature involving 'cause/effect'. I still am a Humean at heart and think of 'cause-effect' as mere 'transitory connexion', so that 'and then' is the most we can get out of things. Now many people notably recently R. B. Jones and B. Aune, who I have corresponded with publicly elsewhere on this, have pointed, rightly to vonWright's system of logic wjere he has a _new_ operator, something like "℗", in utterances like, "p ℗ q", to mean, exactly, "p and then q". This would entail a chronological system of logic, where we need to quantify, perhaps, over time -- usually symbolised as t -- and subscripts, t1 and t2, and the mathematical symbol >. So that, "She got off her knickers and went to bed" -- if and only if, 'then' is MEANT as per entailment is meant -- rather than just 'and', "p/t1 ℗ p/t2 & t1<t2". Now, Grice and Urmson -- never mind Warnock and Strawson -- want to stick with Whitehead/Russell, Principia Mathematica, and interpret the 'and' as what these joint authors have as the dot 'p . q'. So, Grice's manoeuvre is mainly to challenge Strawson -- in his specific section ''and' and '.' in the online link provided above -- that '.' does NOT translate 'and'. Strawson's example is, "She got married and had a child" This was 1952. Where he got the idea one wonders because in the foreword he credits "Mr. H. P. Grice" as someone "he never ceased to learn about logic", and he was AWARE of the implicature talk because he credits Grice on that in a footnote when dealing with (Ex) and (x) -- "some x", "all x" vis a vis "not" --. So Grice is merely contesting Strawson's rushed, hasty, claim. He is wanting to say (as Urmson does in his "Philosophical Analysis") that Whitehead-Russell can be defended if and only if we assume a pragmatic component attached to the Natural Language (NL), _not_ the Formal Language (FL). When uttered in 'conversation', the extra meaning is merely _cancellable_ ('and' meaning 'and then') via the supposition, not so much of 'economy', prima facie, that Kramer mentions, but this rather 'ad hoc' maxim, 'be orderly' (under Manner). When Horn was elaborating on this, I shared with him all the quotes from Grice 1981, NOT included in Grice 1989 on that -- where he has the 'trousers' example used by Urmson, and the Urmson -- so I'm pretty proud, if I can say so, that now both Urmson _AND_ the relevant passage in Grice 1981 _and_ Speranza (:)) are all credited in the LOOONG references to "Implicature" in Handbook of Pragmatics. But more later, I hope. Kennedy's example of the causal 'and' was mentioned, independently of the Strawson-Grice polemic by Ryle, "He died and drank the pill". Levinson's good examle in Pragmatics, "The Lone ranger ran away and jumped on his horse". Etc. Grice discusses vonWright in Grice 1986, too.

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  4. Sounds like Tom Lehrer riffing on the Hut-Sut song:

    Dot not Strawson on the Russell, ah!

    But seriously, who, in your original post, takes responsibility for the claim that

    "She got off her knickers and went to bed"

    and

    "She went to bed and got off her knickers"

    "'depict' the same picture of reality"? Is that Witters, or Urmson, or Strawson, or Grice or Speranza? Can't tell the players without a scorecard.

    I ask because I would think that a logical sentence never "depicts reality." A logical sentence is always a mention of a linguistic token, not a use of it. There is no "reality," actual or fictional, in which both of those sentences would be used interchangeably to report the same chain of events.

    Note that we don't use "mean" in discussing logical sentences. We say that p "implies q" or "entails" q or "is not inconsistent with" (or some such) q. But p does not "mean" q because "meaning" only takes place in the real world. Maybe that's why "depict the same reality" seemed better than "mean the same thing," but I'd want to be convinced that it is better. The two sentences, if used, would report the same two events (her stipping and her going to bed), but not the same one event (her stripping and THEN going to bed). So they wouldn't "depict" the same reality if used. They only depict the same "reality" in Literalia, the logical equivalent of Flatland, a place where there is no implicatural dimension.

    As regards economy vs. orderliness, I was referring to the dropping of words as an economical act. The verbs are ordered in accordance with "be orderly," but words are omitted for economic reasons. The second "she" is not omitted out of orderliness at all. The "then" can be omitted because orderliness is implicit, but it is omitted out of economy. Or so it seems to me.

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  5. Good. I think it's Witters! Urmson, alas, has the example, in the chapter, from what I recall, of "Logical Atomism". So his source is, strictly, Witters, "TLP", Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus. (Perhaps in this Club, to aggravate people, we should use LPA (which is the German acronym for Logisch-Philosophische Abhandlung). Witters is pretty complex because he is having symbols of predicate logic in LPA. But he is also credited, in OED, &c, as the inventor of the truth-table (not quite). So he is, to stick to talk of 'analytic' here, propounding that the 'and' in, "Two and three make five", and "three and two make five" is "commutative". Similarly, "She stripped and slept", "she slept and stripped"; i.e., it is analytic that

    p.q≡q.p
    1111111
    1001001
    0011100
    0001000

    i.e., the column under the 'iff' yields truths, only, for the equivalence is truth-conditional equivalence (and where 'truth-conditional' is also a Wittersian bit of jargon). Now, Urmson is, I think also willing to say that these "atoms" (Peter is nosey, Peter is fat) are 'eternal', so that "Peter is nosey and Peter is fat" describe the same picture as "Peter is fat and Peter is nosey". I would need to revise the Urmson context explicitly. I think Horn may have it online: it's the 'Implicature' entry in the Handbook of Pragmatics. Horn was fascinated because he had encountered a very Grecian Gricean on that: one Dionysius who was appealing to the 'be orderly' maxim. In general, linguists sometimes overlook the depth of the philosophical issues involved. That Dionysius, e.g., was a grammarian, and he couldn't care less (from what I recall about his quote) about the seriousness of this stuff. It's like when I was attending a lecture with B. Lavandera or one of her students: "You enter an apartment; if someone later asks you to describe the apartment, you proceed ORDERLY, as from your perspective COMING IN: NOT as an architect would". So this is all superficial pragmatic stuff. (You narrate events in the temporal sequencing). O. T. O. H., _Witters_ was onto serious things! And he only because he was fascinated by Whitehead and Russell. I take Kramer's point about the ellision (if that's the word) of "she" in "Mary slept and Mary stripped" and I should check if Urmson did dropped the pronoun in the second conjoint. I enjoyed the ref. to Lehrer and will find more about it. Thanks.

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  6. My problem is that in Logicland (formerly, Literalia), atoms joined by "and" are always commutative, whereas in the real world, they sometimes are (she stripped and went to bed) and sometimes aren't (sky is blue and grass is green). But that's because Logiclandian is a subset of English - it's English without the implicatures. It's a different language from the natural language whose words, syntax, and grammar it uses, so we should expect different interpretations (and, therefore, truth-table results) to attach to at least some utterances in the two languages. If I have three children, "I have two children" is false in English, even if it is true in Logiclandian. In one language, "exactly" is implied; in the other it isn't. Two languages, to statuses.

    For similar reasons, I find

    "'Peter is nosey and Peter is fat' describe the same picture as 'Peter is fat and Peter is nosey'"

    to be true only if we are speaking English. If we are speaking Logiclandian, all we can say is that the two sentences are necessarily equally true if, by definition, the "and" operator is commutative. (Any claim that the "and" operator somehow "arrives" with commutativeness attached, as opposed to having commutativeness thrust upon it by defintion, strikes me as untenable.) If Urmson is willing to say "depict the same picture," then we need to get him in the dock, too.

    Analyzing the language shorn of implicatures may be a useful tool for investigating the language with implicatures. But it is a risky venture, because the temptation to pretend that the two languages are the same can be very powerful. Sort of like the idea that what's good for the individual is good for its genome.

    Somehow, the arbitrariness of Logiclandians choosing the vernacular as the source of their vocabulary, grammar, and syntax reminded me of this classic bit by the late Victor Borge

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  7. Thanks, L. J. Indeed! And the identity, as we may, is tempting: tempting Grice alright. Mind, when I say I wrote these things in my PhD, I'm talking from my perspective at _that_ time: I never really was _free_ to chose a subject matter for my PhD: you should have seen, all those requirements, PhD seminars, unavailability of advisors, &c. -- a life to live, too. So I just gathered material from a philosophical-logic seminar, and patched it as ch. ii of my dissertation, etc. It's not that I was _wedded_ to the idea of the thing. But indeed, pressing the Gricean programme, as it were - he needed a straw-man too, :)-- I do speak of the "identity" thesis. Later I may have used "aequi-vocality" thesis. The idea that "&" and "and" are identical. In any case, what Grice 1967 explicitly wrote and aired in Harvard was that both the formalists (later modernists, neo-modernists) AND the informalists (later traditionalists, neo-traditionalists) make the same "_common_ mistake" (Grice's collocation, emphasis mine. JLS). In the case of "and" we have to go to the utterance-part. We need to allow for things like "the meaning of "and" is..." which _is_ cumbersome. And then we need the apparatus, as you say, of the implicatum, so that the "then" of "and then" gets implicated. Cancellability test:

    "She did strip and got into bed, but I'm not in the least suggesting that she proceeded in that order" -- seems grammatically "impeccable" Grice would say -- Grice 1961, whatever the effect it may have on the addressee.

    "I do have two children; although allow me to add that it is not my implication at all to suggest that I only have two."

    &c. I like Kramer's idea of the Logiclandian and Logicland, and the ref. with the Borge and previous with the Lehrer that I should check. In "Urmson", THIS BLOG, I posted the Urmson passage: no talk of "picture", alas. What _I_ was thinking is, I think, "Bildung". As in "pictorial theory of meaning" -- "Bildung" being a technicism in Witters, LPA. Perhaps you can extend or expand on other examples. I suppose you'll say that is's all mainly contextual. And since we do not need to formalise things at all, we could stick with cancellability issues. I HAVE been told that no judge would not abide by Gricean or my logic -- McEvoy, elsewhere, I forget the specifics of the context, but it had to deal with Joan Rivers saying, "I am seventeen-years old; therefore, I am a minor, and a non-consenting one, at that", sort of thing. But then there are games of jeopardy, "What month has 28 days?", "True or false? Henry VIII married five times". And would you be willing to grant (or not willing, but still) that this may be idiosyncratic (i.e. idolectal?) and that perhaps an "idiot" (i.e. an idio-lect speaker who's been uncritically corrupted by ... er, Grice) would have an idiolect that diverges from yours? Etc.

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