Locke and Grice on personal identity and freedom

By JLS
for the GC


In his "Essay Concerning Humane [sic] Understanding" (1690) (2.21.14), Locke writes that “

it is as insignificant to ask, whether Man’s Will be free, as to ask, whether his Sleep be Swift, or his Vertue square: Liberty being as little applicable to the Will, as swiftness of Motion is to Sleep, or squareness to Vertue.”

How does Locke argue for this conclusion?

At Essay 2.21.22, Locke claims that when philosophers raise the question of free will, they do not mean to ask whether the will is free, but rather

“Whether a Man be free to will”.

Locke then claims that this question is itself ambiguous, and argues that, interpreted one way, the answer to it is a qualified “no”, for “it is plain, that in most cases a Man is not at liberty, whether he will Will, or no” (Essay 2.21.25), while, interpreted another way, the answer to it is “yes”. What are Locke’s two interpretations of the question whether a man be free to will?

What is Locke’s argument for his qualified negative answer to the first? [In answering this question, explain why Locke says “in most cases”, but not “in all cases”.

Are there any cases in which a human being is “at liberty, whether he will Will, or no”?

If so, what sorts of cases are they?

And in exactly which sorts of cases is a human being not “at liberty, whether he will Will, or no”?]

What is Locke’s argument for his positive answer to the second?

Do you find any of these arguments persuasive? If so, why? If not, why not?

Feel free to drop!

No. I mean, feel free to supply your multiple-choice answers in _French_.