The Romance Languages (unlike, say, English) use a root for "Easter" that
is actually Hebrew, and supposed to mean 'transition'. The first Christians
found it difficult to apply the SAME conceptual analysis for 'transition'
in the Old Testament to 'transition' in the New Testament, but the Apostles
(twelve of them, see Quine, "Methods of Logic", for the logical form of
"The Apostles were twelve") constantly made this reference to 'pasqua'-1 as
used in the Old Testament and 'pasqua-2' as used in the New Testament. They
were being Griceian, of course ("Do not multiply the sense of 'pasqua'
beyond necessity"). To specify the _Christian_ way of using, a collocation
needed, and 'pasqua' "of resurrection" is used. English is a completely
different animal here.
Since Grice was C. of E., the English roots
for "Easter" and the invited
implicatures of "Happy Easter!" (cfr. "Buona
pasqua!") need to be explored.
We are considering not just Grice (C. of
E.) but Popper (not C. of E.). The
empty tomb, did it prove that Jesus had
i. Jesus's tomb is
This Griceian Easter! (And we skipped, the
problem-solving strategies vs. conceptual analyses used by
Patrick to banish
the serpents not long ago).
I would take
i. Jesus's tomb
as observational. It is, granted, negative in essence, and the
use of "~"
needs to be used. Umberto Eco would say more about this, but he
speak of him for some years! ("Jesus's corpse was eaten by
didn't resurrect," some sceptics then claimed).
i. See: Jesus's tomb is empty.
Popper once said that in a class to students of physics, he said to
Popper says that (ii) is meaningless. "My
students wanted to know WHAT to
observe." Popper invites with this the
implicature that observation is
theory-laden (to speak
Hence my point as to (i) can
become a falsifier.
Tertuliano once said that he believed that p because
he found that p was
absurd. And Aquinas, an Italian, later would say that
philosophy is merely
the 'ancilla' of philosophy. So this is
And I met one theologian who said schatology is a science (Cfr.
"Philosophical Eschatology -- from Genesis to
But (i), "Jesus's tomb is emtpy" is OBSERVATIONAL, if not
the theory here is the theory of resurrection. Let's symbolise it as
Why did Ayer, a logical positivist, thought that all theological
was unverifiable? And would Popper go on to say that, as per McEvoy's
'witch ducking stool', it is irrefutable, and thus essentially and
'Empty' in analysing
'Jesus's tomb is empty'
may be a trick.
in eschatology. Because there may be various explanations why (i) is
-- Jesus's tomb is empty, say, not because he resurrected but because his
corpse was eaten by jackals.
Do not multiply the uses of 'scientific' beyond
necessity? Why is
theological eschatology not a science in Popper's view?
Why is even Grice's
PHILOSOPHICAL eschatology (the study of transcategorial
'scientific' in Popper's use of the adjective? After all,
"eschatology" ends in
"-logy", which most linguistic botanists (including
Grice and Geary) take
it as the CRITERION of science.
ichthyology, and laughed at the idea, when analysing the
'necessity', that we need 'ichthyological necessity'. But with
'eschatological' we are in a safer terrain, we hope.
Bede -- whose work is published by the celebrated Loeb Classical Library
Graeco-Roman literature, wo Bede is a bit of a Roman there, says the the
originally heathen Anglo-Saxon, after becoming Christians -- which, in the
words of Sellars and Yeatman, was a good thing, 'since England was bound to
be C. of E.' -- "before that time, the natives worshipped odd gods by the
name of Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday") -- adopted "Aurora"'s
name (since "easter" is cognate with 'aurora', as deriving from a common
Indo-European verb meaning 'to shine' especially as the dawn or the Roman
'aurora' shines). And not only the name, Bede adds, the Anglo-Saxons, once
Christian, adopted many of the celebratory practices for their own mass of
Christ's resurrection. Almost all (implicature: but not ALL all)
languages use a variant of Latin "Pascha" to name this holiday
-- and USE 'paschal' if you want to invite a further
implicature -- Grice's
conversational category of Modus or perspicuity --
'be perspicuous [sic]',
'avoid obscurity of expression').
right. Why would the Anglo-Saxons draw from Hebrew, anyway. The
though. "pascha" is the mere Greek translation -- remember that
aristocratic Roman boy had a Greek slave that taught him the lingo --
'paidagogos' -- of "πάσχα", which is the Greek way of interpreting some
obscure Hebrew terminology.
The Romans, when uttering
if we are to credit Grice and Putnam ('causal theory of naming)
the feast of the passover, or this "easter" (as Bede
sollennibus Paschae, Tertuliano ad Uxor. 2, 4:
pascham, id. in Carm. adv. Marc. 2, 80:
pascharum dies, Symm. Ep. 10, 77:
dominicum pascha celebrare, Hier. Ep. 96, n. 20:
post sanctum pascha,
Aus. Ep. 10, 17:
paschate vicino, Hier. in Matt. 26, 3:
paschata, id. in Dan. 9, 24.—
If Quine uses the example of "Gavagai" to
mean 'rabbit' (in some
native-American language), it should be noted that
if a Roman said,
he could well be meaning, in a
Griceian way, the paschal lamb -- such is
the use of "pascha" in the
Vulgata 1 Cor. 5, 7; cf. id. Marc. 14, 12.
Not happy with the 'noun',
trust the Romans to suffix. Hence 'pascha'
becomes adj. 'paschalis', to
mean, in a Griceian way, 'of or belonging to the
Passover or to Easter,'
paschale tempus, Cod. Th. 9, 35, 4: dapes, Sedul. init.:
liber, that treats of the Passover, Hier. Ep. 99, n. 1.
Roman utterer was possibly confused. There he is in Rome,
Greek with his Greek slave, about "πάσχα" (The Romans loved the
letters -- since, as Seneca says, "they are so difficult to carve on
The 'paidagogos' -- a slave Roman boys used to learn
Hellenic -- use use
this word to mean the Hebrew Passover. The
'paidagogos', being cultivated,
would know it is from "pāsa[hudot ] 'pass
over'" -- and it is THIS which the
original Griceian meaning is ("Do not
multiply the senses of 'pasqua'
beyond necessity"). This was Paschal feast,
LXX Ex.12.48, etc., and also applied
to the paschal supper, Ev.Matt. 26.17,
19,al., and as in Roman, to the
paschal lamb (θύειν τὸ π. LXX Ex.12.21, al.
; “τὸ π. ἐτύθη Χριστός”
The Anglo-Saxons need NOT be
confused by using "Easter". After, all, the
Christian practices on this day
(and Grice and Oxford are Christian -- he was
fellow of "St. John's" -- what
can be more Christian than that?) are
usually interpreted in terms of
baptism at "the pasch" (Easter), for which
compare Tertullian, but the text
does not specify this season, only that it was
done on Sunday, and the
instructions may apply to whenever the baptism was
So, feel free to use "pasch", or "the pasch".
confuse the travelling Englishman (Grice visited Italy once after
graduation from Oxford) is that 'Aurora' is usually depicted in Italian
frescoes. And Aurora is Easter.
So, by uttering
we may mean yet different things, Griceianly.
Ostara -- in Old English: Ēastre, Northumbrian dialect Ēostre,
Old High German: *Ôstara (reconstructed form)) is a Teutonic
the type Wagner would worship) who, by way of the Germanic
her name (Northumbrian: Ēosturmōnaþ; West Saxon: Ēastermōnaþ;
German: Ôstarmânoth), is the namesake of the festival of Easter.
next thing is to explore why the Romans, whose calendar was so full,
seemed to have a special day to worship 'Aurora' ("unless they did,"
Ēostre is attested solely by Bede in his 8th-century work "The
Time". In this apparently unrelated essay, Bede (who, like
Sting, was from
Northumbria -- in those days, there was no "Tyne & Wear"
-- this is
pre-1974 administrative postal changes and re-distribution of
the territory of
the old shires of old England) states that during
"Ēosturmōnaþ" as the
equivalent of "Aprilis", the heathen Anglo-Saxon held
heathen feasts in Eostre's
INTERLUDE ON "Aprilis
Ā̆prīlis, is qs. contr. from aperilis, from aperio; cf. Varr. L. L.
p. 86 Müll.; Cincius ap. Macr. S. 1, 12; Serv. ad Verg. G. 1, 43
adj.; sc. mensis), m.,
I the month of April (as the month in
which the earth opens and softens):
Sex ubi luces Aprilis habebit, Ov. F.
4, 901.—With mensis expressed: mense
Aprili, Cic. Phil. 2, 39, 100: Qui
dies mensem Veneris marinae Findit
Aprilem, Hor. C. 4, 11, 15.—Adj., of or
pertaining to April: Nonarum Aprilium,
Cic. Fam. 3, 11, 8; 1, 9, 8: Datis
mane a. d. Id. April. Scriptis litteris,
id. ad Brut. 2, 4, 1: Apriles
Idus, Ov. F. 4, 621.
-- end of interlude.
Bede notes that, by his
time (and a fortiori, by Sting's time), this
heathen tradition had 'died
out' (he uses the figurative expression) and
replaced by the Christian
Paschal month, a celebration of the resurrection of
confuse an Englishman, even a Griceian one, is that by uttering
is NOT meaning "east", although "Easter" IS cognate with "east".
addition of "-er" allows us here to say that we can multiply senses,
we have two lexemes. We should not multiply the senses of 'east'
necessity. But 'easter' is not strictly the same as 'east'.
out that bringing Bede in Latin was good enough. What Bede says
the modern Englishman (including Sting, even if he is, like
Eostur-monath, qui nunc Paschalis mensis interpretatur,
quondam a Dea
illorum quæ Eostre vocabatur, et cui in illo festa
celebrabant nomen habuit: a
cujus nomine nunc Paschale tempus cognominant,
observationis vocabulo gaudia novæ solemnitatis
A happy Griceian Easter, all implicatures invited!