No such distinction.
Thus, he writes that when a and b are dominant, the existence of a and of b "is implied" -- in
F1a3 )2 F1b4 --
while he notes that it is "not implied" in the case of
Faa2 )4 F1b3
--- but a case can be made for the existence also being 'implied' (in the sense of 'impicated'. For that reason, some may prefer to use 'entail' for 'logically imply'.
(This is from Grice, p. 133)
Thursday, July 8, 2010
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