Grice wants to play safe:
"French" he claims
(PPQ, vol. 69)
has only one sense, to wit:
"of, or pertaining to, France"
Kramer in "Your paronymy or mine?" comments:
[H]ow "of or pertaining to"
can be used to demonstrate a
single [sense] when "of"
and "pertaining to" mean two things?
---
True. I think he was just being emphatic.
Recall he used 'or' (Latin vel), not 'and'
So one of the disjuncts can be dropped (cfr. "Wanted: dead or alive" -- surely if you bring him alive it would be otiose of me to ask you to also bring him me _dead_, or vice versa).
French: of France
or
French: pertaining to France
He is using 'or' _adverbially_?
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